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Main Search Make This Study a Gene Therapy Make This Study a Not Gene Therapy Report Bug

Ignite Creation Date: 2025-12-24 @ 3:00 PM

Ignite Modification Date: 2026-03-02 @ 12:24 AM

Study NCT ID: NCT00602459

Status: COMPLETED

Last Update Posted: 2023-05-22

First Post: 2008-01-23

Is Gene Therapy: True

Has Adverse Events: True

Brief Title: Fludarabine and Rituximab With or Without Lenalidomide or Cyclophosphamide in Treating Patients With Symptomatic Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Sponsor:

Organization:

Overview Dates Organization Conditions Design Enrollment Locations Outcomes Modules Raw JSON

Raw JSON

{'hasResults': True, 'derivedSection': {'miscInfoModule': {'versionHolder': '2025-12-24'}, 'conditionBrowseModule': {'meshes': [{'id': 'D015451', 'term': 'Leukemia, Lymphocytic, Chronic, B-Cell'}], 'ancestors': [{'id': 'D015448', 'term': 'Leukemia, B-Cell'}, {'id': 'D007945', 'term': 'Leukemia, Lymphoid'}, {'id': 'D007938', 'term': 'Leukemia'}, {'id': 'D009370', 'term': 'Neoplasms by Histologic Type'}, {'id': 'D009369', 'term': 'Neoplasms'}, {'id': 'D006402', 'term': 'Hematologic Diseases'}, {'id': 'D006425', 'term': 'Hemic and Lymphatic Diseases'}, {'id': 'D008232', 'term': 'Lymphoproliferative Disorders'}, {'id': 'D008206', 'term': 'Lymphatic Diseases'}, {'id': 'D007160', 'term': 'Immunoproliferative Disorders'}, {'id': 'D007154', 'term': 'Immune System Diseases'}, {'id': 'D002908', 'term': 'Chronic Disease'}, {'id': 'D020969', 'term': 'Disease Attributes'}, {'id': 'D010335', 'term': 'Pathologic Processes'}, {'id': 'D013568', 'term': 'Pathological Conditions, Signs and Symptoms'}]}, 'interventionBrowseModule': {'meshes': [{'id': 'D003520', 'term': 'Cyclophosphamide'}, {'id': 'C042382', 'term': 'fludarabine phosphate'}, {'id': 'D000077269', 'term': 'Lenalidomide'}, {'id': 'D000069283', 'term': 'Rituximab'}, {'id': 'C000626854', 'term': 'CT-P10'}], 'ancestors': [{'id': 'D010752', 'term': 'Phosphoramide Mustards'}, {'id': 'D009588', 'term': 'Nitrogen Mustard Compounds'}, {'id': 'D009150', 'term': 'Mustard Compounds'}, {'id': 'D006846', 'term': 'Hydrocarbons, Halogenated'}, {'id': 'D006838', 'term': 'Hydrocarbons'}, {'id': 'D009930', 'term': 'Organic Chemicals'}, {'id': 'D063088', 'term': 'Phosphoramides'}, {'id': 'D009943', 'term': 'Organophosphorus Compounds'}, {'id': 'D010797', 'term': 'Phthalimides'}, {'id': 'D010795', 'term': 'Phthalic Acids'}, {'id': 'D000146', 'term': 'Acids, Carbocyclic'}, {'id': 'D002264', 'term': 'Carboxylic Acids'}, {'id': 'D010881', 'term': 'Piperidones'}, {'id': 'D010880', 'term': 'Piperidines'}, {'id': 'D006573', 'term': 'Heterocyclic Compounds, 1-Ring'}, {'id': 'D006571', 'term': 'Heterocyclic Compounds'}, {'id': 'D054833', 'term': 'Isoindoles'}, {'id': 'D006574', 'term': 'Heterocyclic Compounds, 2-Ring'}, {'id': 'D000072471', 'term': 'Heterocyclic Compounds, Fused-Ring'}, {'id': 'D058846', 'term': 'Antibodies, Monoclonal, Murine-Derived'}, {'id': 'D000911', 'term': 'Antibodies, Monoclonal'}, {'id': 'D000906', 'term': 'Antibodies'}, {'id': 'D007136', 'term': 'Immunoglobulins'}, {'id': 'D007162', 'term': 'Immunoproteins'}, {'id': 'D001798', 'term': 'Blood Proteins'}, {'id': 'D011506', 'term': 'Proteins'}, {'id': 'D000602', 'term': 'Amino Acids, Peptides, and Proteins'}, {'id': 'D012712', 'term': 'Serum Globulins'}, {'id': 'D005916', 'term': 'Globulins'}]}}, 'resultsSection': {'moreInfoModule': {'pointOfContact': {'email': 'john.byrd@osumc.edu', 'title': 'John Byrd, M.D.', 'organization': 'Ohio State University'}, 'certainAgreement': {'restrictionType': 'LTE60', 'piSponsorEmployee': False, 'restrictiveAgreement': True}}, 'adverseEventsModule': {'eventGroups': [{'id': 'EG000', 'title': 'Arm A (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: Patients receive rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.', 'otherNumAtRisk': 123, 'otherNumAffected': 117, 'seriousNumAtRisk': 123, 'seriousNumAffected': 13}, {'id': 'EG001', 'title': 'Arm B (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.', 'otherNumAtRisk': 109, 'otherNumAffected': 107, 'seriousNumAtRisk': 109, 'seriousNumAffected': 21}, {'id': 'EG002', 'title': 'Arm C (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Cyclophosphamide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.', 'otherNumAtRisk': 137, 'otherNumAffected': 132, 'seriousNumAtRisk': 137, 'seriousNumAffected': 14}, {'id': 'EG003', 'title': 'Arm D (Rituximab, Fludarabine, Cyclophosphamide, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Patients receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.', 'otherNumAtRisk': 31, 'otherNumAffected': 30, 'seriousNumAtRisk': 31, 'seriousNumAffected': 3}], 'otherEvents': [{'term': 'Blood disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 22, 'numAffected': 8}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 21, 'numAffected': 5}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 26, 'numAffected': 8}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Febrile neutropenia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 17, 'numAffected': 14}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 13, 'numAffected': 13}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 18, 'numAffected': 18}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 6, 'numAffected': 5}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hemoglobin decreased', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 398, 'numAffected': 92}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 436, 'numAffected': 90}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 516, 'numAffected': 116}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 91, 'numAffected': 23}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hemolysis', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Lymph node pain', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 16, 'numAffected': 6}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Lymphatic disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Thrombotic microangiopathy', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Blood and lymphatic system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Arrhythmia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 4}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Atrial fibrillation', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Atrial flutter', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Cardiac disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Conduction disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Edema', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Left ventricular dysfunction', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Left ventricular failure', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Myocardial ischemia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Palpitations', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 4}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Pericardial effusion', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Premature ventricular contractions', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Restrictive cardiomyopathy', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Sinus bradycardia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 8, 'numAffected': 4}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 6, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Sinus tachycardia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 5, 'numAffected': 4}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 9, 'numAffected': 9}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Ventricular bigeminy', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Cardiac disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Ear disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Ear and labyrinth disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Ear pain', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 5, 'numAffected': 4}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 8, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Ear and labyrinth disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'External ear pain', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Ear and labyrinth disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hearing impaired', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Ear and labyrinth disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Middle ear inflammation', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Ear and labyrinth disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Tinnitus', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 16, 'numAffected': 5}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 6, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Ear and labyrinth disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Endocrine disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Endocrine disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hyperthyroidism', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Endocrine disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hypothyroidism', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Endocrine disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Cataract', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Eye disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Conjunctivitis', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Eye disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Diplopia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Eye disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Dry eye syndrome', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Eye disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Eye disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 4, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 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'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Nervous system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Syncope', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Nervous system disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Agitation', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Psychiatric disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Anxiety', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Psychiatric disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Confusion', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Psychiatric disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Depression', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}], 'organSystem': 'Psychiatric disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Insomnia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Psychiatric disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Personality change', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Psychiatric disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Glomerular filtration rate decreased', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Renal and urinary disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hemoglobin urine positive', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 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'organSystem': 'Renal and urinary disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Urinary frequency', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Renal and urinary disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Urinary incontinence', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Renal and urinary disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Urinary retention', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Renal and urinary disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Urogenital disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Renal and urinary disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Breast pain', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Reproductive system and breast disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Allergic rhinitis', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Atelectasis', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Bronchospasm', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Cough', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 9, 'numAffected': 8}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Dyspnea', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 5, 'numAffected': 5}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 7, 'numAffected': 7}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hypoxia', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Pharyngolaryngeal pain', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Pleural effusion', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Respiratory disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Voice alteration', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Petechiae', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Pruritus', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Rash desquamating', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Sweating', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Flushing', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Vascular disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hematoma', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Vascular disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hot flashes', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Vascular disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hypertension', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Vascular disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Hypotension', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 3, 'numAffected': 3}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 2, 'numAffected': 2}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Vascular disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}, {'term': 'Vascular disorder', 'stats': [{'groupId': 'EG000', 'numAtRisk': 123, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG001', 'numAtRisk': 109, 'numEvents': 1, 'numAffected': 1}, {'groupId': 'EG002', 'numAtRisk': 137, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}, {'groupId': 'EG003', 'numAtRisk': 31, 'numEvents': 0, 'numAffected': 0}], 'organSystem': 'Vascular disorders', 'assessmentType': 'SYSTEMATIC_ASSESSMENT', 'sourceVocabulary': 'MedDRA 6'}], 'frequencyThreshold': '0'}, 'outcomeMeasuresModule': {'outcomeMeasures': [{'type': 'PRIMARY', 'title': '2-Year Progression Free Survival (PFS) Rate', 'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '123', 'groupId': 'OG000'}, {'value': '109', 'groupId': 'OG001'}, {'value': '110', 'groupId': 'OG002'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'OG000', 'title': 'Arm A, FR in Non-del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants, who are non-del(11q22.3), receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab (R) IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate (F) 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.'}, {'id': 'OG001', 'title': 'Arm B, FR+L in Non-del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants, who are non-del(11q22.3), receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab (R) IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate (F) 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide (L) 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}, {'id': 'OG002', 'title': 'Arm C1, FCR in Non-del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants, who are non-del(11q22.3), receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab (R) IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (F) (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (C) (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}], 'classes': [{'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '0.64', 'groupId': 'OG000', 'lowerLimit': '0.57', 'upperLimit': '0.71'}, {'value': '0.71', 'groupId': 'OG001', 'lowerLimit': '0.63', 'upperLimit': '0.78'}, {'value': '0.74', 'groupId': 'OG002', 'lowerLimit': '0.66', 'upperLimit': '0.80'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'NUMBER', 'timeFrame': '2 years', 'description': 'Proportion of participants who were alive and progression free at 2 years.', 'unitOfMeasure': 'proportion of participants', 'dispersionType': '90% Confidence Interval', 'reportingStatus': 'POSTED', 'populationDescription': 'Patients re-assigned to Arm C were split into two analysis groups, patients with del(11q22.3), as assessed by interphase cytogenetics and present in at least 20% of cells, and those without del(11q22.3). This endpoint is limited to patients without del(11q22.3).'}, {'type': 'SECONDARY', 'title': 'Overall Response Rate in Patients Without Del(11q22.3)', 'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '123', 'groupId': 'OG000'}, {'value': '109', 'groupId': 'OG001'}, {'value': '110', 'groupId': 'OG002'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'OG000', 'title': 'Arm A (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.'}, {'id': 'OG001', 'title': 'Arm B (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}, {'id': 'OG002', 'title': 'Arm C (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Cyclophosphamide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}], 'classes': [{'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '75', 'groupId': 'OG000', 'lowerLimit': '68', 'upperLimit': '81'}, {'value': '69', 'groupId': 'OG001', 'lowerLimit': '61', 'upperLimit': '76'}, {'value': '71', 'groupId': 'OG002', 'lowerLimit': '63', 'upperLimit': '78'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'NUMBER', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Percentage of non-del(11q22.3) participants with a complete response (CR) or partial response (PR). CR: no lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly or constitutional symptoms; normal complete blood count; confirmed by bone marrow (BM) aspirate \\& biopsy PR: 50% decrease in peripheral blood lymphocytes, lymphadenopathy, liver/spleen size, presence/absence of constitutional symptoms; plus \\>= 1 of the following: \\>= 1500/uL polymorphonuclear leukocytes, \\> 100,000/uL platelets, \\> 11.0 g/dL hemoglobin or 50% improvement for these parameters without transfusions.', 'unitOfMeasure': 'percentage of participants', 'dispersionType': '90% Confidence Interval', 'reportingStatus': 'POSTED', 'populationDescription': 'Patients without Del(11q22.3) were included in this analysis.'}, {'type': 'SECONDARY', 'title': 'Overall Response Rates in Patients With Del(11q22.3)', 'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '27', 'groupId': 'OG000'}, {'value': '31', 'groupId': 'OG001'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'OG000', 'title': 'Arm C (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Cyclophosphamide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}, {'id': 'OG001', 'title': 'Arm D (Rituximab, Fludarabine, Cyclophosphamide, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Patients receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}], 'classes': [{'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '59', 'groupId': 'OG000', 'lowerLimit': '42', 'upperLimit': '75'}, {'value': '74', 'groupId': 'OG001', 'lowerLimit': '58', 'upperLimit': '86'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'NUMBER', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Percentage of del(11q22.3) participants with a complete response (CR) or partial response (PR). CR: no lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly or constitutional symptoms; normal complete blood count; confirmed by bone marrow (BM) aspirate \\& biopsy PR: 50% decrease in peripheral blood lymphocytes, lymphadenopathy, liver/spleen size, presence/absence of constitutional symptoms; plus \\>= 1 of the following: \\>= 1500/uL polymorphonuclear leukocytes, \\> 100,000/uL platelets, \\> 11.0 g/dL hemoglobin or 50% improvement for these parameters without transfusions.', 'unitOfMeasure': 'percentage of participants', 'dispersionType': '90% Confidence Interval', 'reportingStatus': 'POSTED', 'populationDescription': 'Patients with del(11q22.3) were included in this analysis.'}, {'type': 'SECONDARY', 'title': 'PFS Rate of Patients With Del(11q22.3)', 'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '27', 'groupId': 'OG000'}, {'value': '31', 'groupId': 'OG001'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'OG000', 'title': 'Arm C2, FCR in Del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants who have del(11q22.3) receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}, {'id': 'OG001', 'title': 'Arm D, FCR+L in Del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Patients who have del(11q22.3)receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}], 'classes': [{'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '0.56', 'groupId': 'OG000', 'lowerLimit': '0.38', 'upperLimit': '0.72'}, {'value': '0.65', 'groupId': 'OG001', 'lowerLimit': '0.48', 'upperLimit': '0.79'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'NUMBER', 'timeFrame': '2 years', 'description': 'Proportion of del (11q22.3) participants who were alive and progression free at 2 years.', 'unitOfMeasure': 'proportion of participants', 'dispersionType': '90% Confidence Interval', 'reportingStatus': 'POSTED', 'populationDescription': 'This endpoint is limited to patients with del(11q22.3).'}, {'type': 'SECONDARY', 'title': 'Time-to-progression in Patients Without Del(11q22.3)', 'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '123', 'groupId': 'OG000'}, {'value': '109', 'groupId': 'OG001'}, {'value': '110', 'groupId': 'OG002'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'OG000', 'title': 'Arm A, FR in Non-del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants, who are non-del(11q22.3), receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab (R) IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate (F) 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.'}, {'id': 'OG001', 'title': 'Arm B, FR+L in Non-del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants, who are non-del(11q22.3), receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab (R) IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate (F) 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide (L) 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}, {'id': 'OG002', 'title': 'Arm C1, FCR in Non-del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants, who are non-del(11q22.3), receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab (R) IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (F) (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (C) (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}], 'classes': [{'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '43.5', 'groupId': 'OG000', 'lowerLimit': '32.8', 'upperLimit': '49.9'}, {'value': '66.0', 'comment': 'The upper limit was not calculable because an insufficient number of participants reached the event at the final time point for assessment', 'groupId': 'OG001', 'lowerLimit': '44.5', 'upperLimit': 'NA'}, {'value': '78.0', 'comment': 'The upper limit was not calculable because an insufficient number of participants reached the event at the final time point for assessment', 'groupId': 'OG002', 'lowerLimit': '57.9', 'upperLimit': 'NA'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'MEDIAN', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Time to progression (TTP) was defined as the registration date to date of progression or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. TTP was estimated using the Kaplan Meier method. Progressive disease (PD) required at least one of the following: \\>= 50% increase in the absolute number of lymphocytes, appearance of new palpable lymph nodes, \\>= 50% increase in the product of at least two lymphnodes, \\>= 50% increase in the enlargement of the liver and/or spleen.', 'unitOfMeasure': 'months', 'dispersionType': '95% Confidence Interval', 'reportingStatus': 'POSTED', 'populationDescription': 'This endpoint is limited to patients without del(11q22.3).'}, {'type': 'SECONDARY', 'title': 'Time-to-progression in Patients With Del(11q22.3)', 'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '27', 'groupId': 'OG000'}, {'value': '31', 'groupId': 'OG001'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'OG000', 'title': 'Arm C2, FCR in Del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Participants who have del(11q22.3) receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}, {'id': 'OG001', 'title': 'Arm D, FCR+L in Del(11q22.3)', 'description': 'Patients who have del(11q22.3)receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}], 'classes': [{'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '35.5', 'groupId': 'OG000', 'lowerLimit': '21.8', 'upperLimit': '65.5'}, {'value': '44.6', 'groupId': 'OG001', 'lowerLimit': '25.7', 'upperLimit': '50.7'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'MEDIAN', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Time to progression (TTP) in del(11q22.3) participants was defined as the registration date to date of progression or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. TTP was estimated using the Kaplan Meier method.', 'unitOfMeasure': 'months', 'dispersionType': '95% Confidence Interval', 'reportingStatus': 'POSTED', 'populationDescription': 'This endpoint is limited to patients with del(11q22.3).'}]}, 'participantFlowModule': {'groups': [{'id': 'FG000', 'title': 'Arm A (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.'}, {'id': 'FG001', 'title': 'Arm B (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}, {'id': 'FG002', 'title': 'Arm C (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Cyclophosphamide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}, {'id': 'FG003', 'title': 'Arm D (Rituximab, Fludarabine, Cyclophosphamide, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Patients receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}], 'periods': [{'title': 'Initial Registration/Randomization', 'milestones': [{'type': 'STARTED', 'achievements': [{'groupId': 'FG000', 'numSubjects': '138'}, {'groupId': 'FG001', 'numSubjects': '140'}, {'groupId': 'FG002', 'numSubjects': '140'}, {'groupId': 'FG003', 'numSubjects': '0'}]}, {'type': 'COMPLETED', 'achievements': [{'groupId': 'FG000', 'numSubjects': '133'}, {'groupId': 'FG001', 'numSubjects': '130'}, {'groupId': 'FG002', 'numSubjects': '137'}, {'groupId': 'FG003', 'numSubjects': '0'}]}, {'type': 'NOT COMPLETED', 'achievements': [{'groupId': 'FG000', 'numSubjects': '5'}, {'groupId': 'FG001', 'numSubjects': '10'}, {'groupId': 'FG002', 'numSubjects': '3'}, {'groupId': 'FG003', 'numSubjects': '0'}]}]}, {'title': 'Re-assignment After Del(11q22.3) Testing', 'milestones': [{'type': 'STARTED', 'achievements': [{'groupId': 'FG000', 'numSubjects': '123'}, {'groupId': 'FG001', 'numSubjects': '109'}, {'groupId': 'FG002', 'numSubjects': '137'}, {'groupId': 'FG003', 'numSubjects': '31'}]}, {'type': 'COMPLETED', 'achievements': [{'groupId': 'FG000', 'numSubjects': '123'}, {'groupId': 'FG001', 'numSubjects': '109'}, {'groupId': 'FG002', 'numSubjects': '137'}, {'groupId': 'FG003', 'numSubjects': '31'}]}, {'type': 'NOT COMPLETED', 'achievements': [{'groupId': 'FG000', 'numSubjects': '0'}, {'groupId': 'FG001', 'numSubjects': '0'}, {'groupId': 'FG002', 'numSubjects': '0'}, {'groupId': 'FG003', 'numSubjects': '0'}]}]}], 'recruitmentDetails': 'From January 2008 to August 2012, 418 participants were recruited to this study.'}, 'baselineCharacteristicsModule': {'denoms': [{'units': 'Participants', 'counts': [{'value': '123', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '109', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '137', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '31', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '400', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}], 'groups': [{'id': 'BG000', 'title': 'Arm A (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.'}, {'id': 'BG001', 'title': 'Arm B (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}, {'id': 'BG002', 'title': 'Arm C (Rituximab, Fludarabine Phosphate, Cyclophosphamide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.'}, {'id': 'BG003', 'title': 'Arm D (Rituximab, Fludarabine, Cyclophosphamide, Lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Patients receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.'}, {'id': 'BG004', 'title': 'Total', 'description': 'Total of all reporting groups'}], 'measures': [{'title': 'Age, Categorical', 'classes': [{'categories': [{'title': '<=18 years', 'measurements': [{'value': '0', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '0', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '0', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '0', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '0', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}, {'title': 'Between 18 and 65 years', 'measurements': [{'value': '80', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '67', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '88', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '21', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '256', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}, {'title': '>=65 years', 'measurements': [{'value': '43', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '42', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '49', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '10', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '144', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'COUNT_OF_PARTICIPANTS', 'unitOfMeasure': 'Participants'}, {'title': 'Sex: Female, Male', 'classes': [{'categories': [{'title': 'Female', 'measurements': [{'value': '40', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '40', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '51', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '8', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '139', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}, {'title': 'Male', 'measurements': [{'value': '83', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '69', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '86', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '23', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '261', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'COUNT_OF_PARTICIPANTS', 'unitOfMeasure': 'Participants'}, {'title': 'Region of Enrollment', 'classes': [{'title': 'Canada', 'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '15', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '14', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '16', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '8', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '53', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}]}, {'title': 'United States', 'categories': [{'measurements': [{'value': '108', 'groupId': 'BG000'}, {'value': '95', 'groupId': 'BG001'}, {'value': '121', 'groupId': 'BG002'}, {'value': '23', 'groupId': 'BG003'}, {'value': '347', 'groupId': 'BG004'}]}]}], 'paramType': 'NUMBER', 'unitOfMeasure': 'participants'}], 'populationDescription': '400 participants were evaluable for analysis. (18 participants were excluded from the analysis.)'}}, 'protocolSection': {'designModule': {'phases': ['PHASE2'], 'studyType': 'INTERVENTIONAL', 'designInfo': {'allocation': 'RANDOMIZED', 'maskingInfo': {'masking': 'NONE'}, 'primaryPurpose': 'TREATMENT', 'interventionModel': 'PARALLEL'}, 'enrollmentInfo': {'type': 'ACTUAL', 'count': 418}}, 'statusModule': {'overallStatus': 'COMPLETED', 'startDateStruct': {'date': '2008-01-15', 'type': 'ACTUAL'}, 'expandedAccessInfo': {'hasExpandedAccess': False}, 'statusVerifiedDate': '2023-04', 'completionDateStruct': {'date': '2023-04-15', 'type': 'ACTUAL'}, 'lastUpdateSubmitDate': '2023-04-26', 'studyFirstSubmitDate': '2008-01-23', 'resultsFirstSubmitDate': '2016-12-19', 'studyFirstSubmitQcDate': '2008-01-23', 'lastUpdatePostDateStruct': {'date': '2023-05-22', 'type': 'ACTUAL'}, 'resultsFirstSubmitQcDate': '2017-02-15', 'studyFirstPostDateStruct': {'date': '2008-01-28', 'type': 'ESTIMATED'}, 'resultsFirstPostDateStruct': {'date': '2017-04-04', 'type': 'ACTUAL'}, 'primaryCompletionDateStruct': {'date': '2014-12-01', 'type': 'ACTUAL'}}, 'outcomesModule': {'primaryOutcomes': [{'measure': '2-Year Progression Free Survival (PFS) Rate', 'timeFrame': '2 years', 'description': 'Proportion of participants who were alive and progression free at 2 years.'}], 'secondaryOutcomes': [{'measure': 'Overall Response Rate in Patients Without Del(11q22.3)', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Percentage of non-del(11q22.3) participants with a complete response (CR) or partial response (PR). CR: no lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly or constitutional symptoms; normal complete blood count; confirmed by bone marrow (BM) aspirate \\& biopsy PR: 50% decrease in peripheral blood lymphocytes, lymphadenopathy, liver/spleen size, presence/absence of constitutional symptoms; plus \\>= 1 of the following: \\>= 1500/uL polymorphonuclear leukocytes, \\> 100,000/uL platelets, \\> 11.0 g/dL hemoglobin or 50% improvement for these parameters without transfusions.'}, {'measure': 'Overall Response Rates in Patients With Del(11q22.3)', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Percentage of del(11q22.3) participants with a complete response (CR) or partial response (PR). CR: no lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly or constitutional symptoms; normal complete blood count; confirmed by bone marrow (BM) aspirate \\& biopsy PR: 50% decrease in peripheral blood lymphocytes, lymphadenopathy, liver/spleen size, presence/absence of constitutional symptoms; plus \\>= 1 of the following: \\>= 1500/uL polymorphonuclear leukocytes, \\> 100,000/uL platelets, \\> 11.0 g/dL hemoglobin or 50% improvement for these parameters without transfusions.'}, {'measure': 'PFS Rate of Patients With Del(11q22.3)', 'timeFrame': '2 years', 'description': 'Proportion of del (11q22.3) participants who were alive and progression free at 2 years.'}, {'measure': 'Time-to-progression in Patients Without Del(11q22.3)', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Time to progression (TTP) was defined as the registration date to date of progression or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. TTP was estimated using the Kaplan Meier method. Progressive disease (PD) required at least one of the following: \\>= 50% increase in the absolute number of lymphocytes, appearance of new palpable lymph nodes, \\>= 50% increase in the product of at least two lymphnodes, \\>= 50% increase in the enlargement of the liver and/or spleen.'}, {'measure': 'Time-to-progression in Patients With Del(11q22.3)', 'timeFrame': 'Up to 15 years', 'description': 'Time to progression (TTP) in del(11q22.3) participants was defined as the registration date to date of progression or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. TTP was estimated using the Kaplan Meier method.'}]}, 'conditionsModule': {'conditions': ['Stage I Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia', 'Stage II Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia', 'Stage III Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia', 'Stage IV Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia']}, 'descriptionModule': {'briefSummary': 'This randomized phase II trial studies how well fludarabine (fludarabine phosphate) and rituximab with or without lenalidomide or cyclophosphamide work in treating patients with symptomatic chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as fludarabine phosphate and cyclophosphamide, work in different ways to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by killing the cells, by stopping them from dividing, or by stopping them from spreading. Monoclonal antibodies, such as rituximab, may block cancer growth in different ways by targeting certain cells. Lenalidomide may stimulate the immune system in different ways and stop cancer cells from growing. Giving fludarabine phosphate and rituximab together with lenalidomide or cyclophosphamide may be an effective treatment for chronic lymphocytic leukemia.', 'detailedDescription': 'PRIMARY OBJECTIVES:\n\nI. To determine the two-year progression-free survival (PFS) after remission induction with four different chemo-immunotherapy combinations for patients with untreated, symptomatic, lower-risk and high-risk chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) to decide which of the four arms, if any, to take forward into a randomized phase III trial.\n\nII. To determine the induction response to fludarabine phosphate and rituximab (FR) and fludarabine phosphate, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab (FCR) in each of these arms, along with the consolidation response to lenalidomide in patients with CLL.\n\nIII. To determine the toxicity from these four chemoimmunotherapy combinations and that of consolidation therapy with lenalidomide.\n\nIV. To determine the induction response and toxicity of FCR in patients with deletion (del) (11q22.3) along with consolidation response, 2-year PFS and toxicity of lenalidomide in this specific genetic group.\n\nV. To determine the effect of pretreatment biologic characteristics on clinical outcomes, such as attaining a complete response to induction therapy and progression-free survival.\n\nVI. To collect relapse samples to determine the frequency of clonal evolution among patients with immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region (IgVH) mutated and unmutated disease and to study mechanisms of resistance to chemoimmunotherapy.\n\nVII. To determine if flow cytometry-negative status immediately post-therapy and at 24 months after study entry is an effective surrogate marker for prolonged progression-free survival and overall survival.\n\nOUTLINE: Patients are randomized to 1 of 3 treatment arms (Arms A, B, or C). Patients on Arm A or B who are found to be del (11q22.3) positive are assigned to Arm D beginning with course 2 of induction therapy.\n\nARM A (remission-induction \\[RI\\] therapy with fludarabine phosphate and rituximab): Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab intravenously (IV) over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or orally (PO) on days 1-5.\n\nARM B (RI therapy with fludarabine phosphate and rituximab followed by remission-consolidation \\[RC\\] therapy with lenalidomide): Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO once daily (QD) on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.\n\nARM C (RI therapy with fludarabine phosphate, rituximab, and cyclophosphamide): Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.\n\nARM D (RI therapy with fludarabine phosphate, rituximab, and cyclophosphamide followed by RC therapy with lenalidomide): Patients receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.\n\nAfter completion of study therapy, patients are followed up every 3 months for 1 year and then every 6 months for up to 15 years.'}, 'eligibilityModule': {'sex': 'ALL', 'stdAges': ['ADULT', 'OLDER_ADULT'], 'minimumAge': '18 Years', 'healthyVolunteers': False, 'eligibilityCriteria': 'Inclusion Criteria:\n\n* Specific diagnosis of B-cell CLL:\n\n * An absolute lymphocytosis of \\> 5,000/uL\n\n * Morphologically, the lymphocytes must appear mature with \\< 55% prolymphocytes\n * Bone marrow examination must include at least a unilateral aspirate and biopsy; the aspirate smear must show \\> 30% of all nucleated cells to be lymphoid or the bone marrow core biopsy must show lymphoid infiltrates compatible with marrow involvement by CLL; overall cellularity must be normocellular or hypercellular\n * Local institution lymphocyte phenotype must reveal a predominant B-cell monoclonal population sharing a B-cell marker (cluster of differentiation \\[CD\\]19, CD20, CD23) with the CD5 antigen, in the absence of other pan-T-cell markers; additionally, the B-cells must be monoclonal with regard to expression of either kappa or lambda and have surface immunoglobulin expression of low density; patients with bright surface immunoglobulin levels must have CD23 co-expression\n* Patients must have symptomatic and active intermediate or high-risk categories of the modified three-stage Rai staging system:\n\n * Not eligible: low risk, Rai stage 0, lymphocytes (L) in blood (\\> 5000/uL) and marrow (\\> 30%) only\n * Intermediate risk, Rai stage I, L + enlarged lymph nodes (LN)\n * Intermediate risk, Rai stage II, L + spleen and/or liver (LN + or -)\n * High risk, Rai stage III, L + anemia (hemoglobin \\< 11 gm/dL)\n * High risk, Rai stage IV, L + thrombocytopenia (platelets \\< 100,000/uL)\n* Patients in the intermediate-risk group must have evidence of active disease as demonstrated by at least one of the following criteria:\n\n * Massive or progressive splenomegaly, hepatomegaly and/or lymphadenopathy\n * Presence of weight loss \\> 10% over the preceding 6 month period\n * Grade 2 or 3 fatigue\n * Fevers \\> 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) or night sweats for greater than 2 weeks without evidence of infection\n * Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of \\> 50% over a 2 month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 months\n* No prior therapy for CLL, including no corticosteroids for autoimmune complications that have developed since the initial diagnosis of CLL\n* No medical condition requiring chronic use of oral corticosteroids\n* Performance status 0 - 2\n* Patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection may be eligible provided they meet the following criteria: no evidence of infection with hepatitis B or C; CD4+ cell count \\> 350/mm\\^3; no evidence of resistant strains of HIV; if not on anti-HIV therapy, an HIV viral load \\< 10,000 copies HIV ribonucleic acid (RNA)/mL; if on HIV therapy, HIV viral load \\< 50 copies HIV RNA/mL; and no history of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining condition; patients receiving concurrent zidovudine or stavudine may not be enrolled\n* Non-pregnant and non-nursing\n* In females of child-bearing potential randomized to Arm B or assigned to Arm D, a negative urine or serum pregnancy test with a sensitivity of at least 25 mIU/mL will be required: 1) 10-14 days prior to beginning lenalidomide consolidation therapy; and 2) within 24 hours prior to the first dose of lenalidomide consolidation therapy; in addition, females of childbearing potential in Arm B and Arm D with regular menses must have a pregnancy test performed weekly during the first 28 days of treatment, and then every 28 days while taking lenalidomide (including breaks in lenalidomide), at discontinuation of lenalidomide, and then 28 days following discontinuation of lenalidomide; if menses are irregular, a pregnancy test must be performed weekly during the first 28 days of treatment, and then every 14 days while taking lenalidomide, at discontinuation of lenalidomide, and at 14 and 28 days after discontinuation of lenalidomide; additionally, females of childbearing potential must either commit to continued abstinence from heterosexual intercourse or begin TWO reliable methods of birth control - one highly effective method (intrauterine device \\[IUD\\], hormonal \\[birth control pills, injections, or implants\\], tubal ligation, or partner\'s vasectomy), and one additional effective method (latex condom, diaphragm, or cervical cap) - AT THE SAME TIME, at least 4 weeks before she begins lenalidomide therapy, while participating in the study, and for at least 4 weeks after completing lenalidomide therapy; "females of childbearing potential" is defined as a sexually mature woman who has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy, or who has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months (not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 24 consecutive months)\n* Male patients randomized to Arm B or reassigned to Arm D must agree not to father a child and to use a latex condom during any sexual contact with females of childbearing potential while taking lenalidomide and for at least 4 weeks following completion of lenalidomide therapy, even if the patient have undergone a successful vasectomy\n* All patients randomized to Arm B or reassigned to Arm D must be counseled by a trained counselor every 28 days during consolidation therapy about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure\n* Creatinine =\\< 1.5 x upper limit of normal'}, 'identificationModule': {'nctId': 'NCT00602459', 'briefTitle': 'Fludarabine and Rituximab With or Without Lenalidomide or Cyclophosphamide in Treating Patients With Symptomatic Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia', 'organization': {'class': 'NIH', 'fullName': 'National Cancer Institute (NCI)'}, 'officialTitle': 'A Genetic Risk-Stratified, Randomized Phase II Study of Four Fludarabine/Antibody Combinations for Patients With Symptomatic, Previously Untreated Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia', 'orgStudyIdInfo': {'id': 'NCI-2009-00441'}, 'secondaryIdInfos': [{'id': 'NCI-2009-00441', 'type': 'REGISTRY', 'domain': 'CTRP (Clinical Trial Reporting Program)'}, {'id': 'CDR0000584205'}, {'id': 'ECOG-10404'}, {'id': 'SWOG-C10404'}, {'id': '11-00126'}, {'id': 'SWOG C10404'}, {'id': 'ECOG 10404'}, {'id': 'CAN-NCIC-CL3'}, {'id': 'CALGB 10404', 'type': 'OTHER', 'domain': 'Alliance for Clinical Trials in Oncology'}, {'id': 'CALGB-10404', 'type': 'OTHER', 'domain': 'CTEP'}, {'id': 'U10CA180821', 'link': 'https://reporter.nih.gov/quickSearch/U10CA180821', 'type': 'NIH'}, {'id': 'U10CA031946', 'link': 'https://reporter.nih.gov/quickSearch/U10CA031946', 'type': 'NIH'}]}, 'armsInterventionsModule': {'armGroups': [{'type': 'ACTIVE_COMPARATOR', 'label': 'Arm A (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: Patients receive rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5.', 'interventionNames': ['Drug: Fludarabine Phosphate', 'Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis', 'Biological: Rituximab']}, {'type': 'EXPERIMENTAL', 'label': 'Arm B (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 1-4 hours on days 1 (50 mg/m\\^2), 3 (325 mg/m\\^2), and 5 (375 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (375 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients also receive fludarabine phosphate 25 mg/m\\^2/day IV over 30 minutes or PO on days 1-5. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6 PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.', 'interventionNames': ['Drug: Fludarabine Phosphate', 'Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis', 'Drug: Lenalidomide', 'Biological: Rituximab']}, {'type': 'EXPERIMENTAL', 'label': 'Arm C (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, cyclophosphamide)', 'description': 'Participants receive induction therapy (every 28 days for up to 6 cycles) of: rituximab IV over 4 hours on days 1 (50mg/m\\^2) and 3 (325 mg/m\\^2) of course 1 and on day 1 (500 mg/m\\^2) of all subsequent courses. Patients then receive fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) followed by cyclophosphamide (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3.', 'interventionNames': ['Drug: Cyclophosphamide', 'Drug: Fludarabine Phosphate', 'Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis', 'Biological: Rituximab']}, {'type': 'EXPERIMENTAL', 'label': 'Arm D (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, lenalidomide)', 'description': 'Patients receive the first course of induction therapy as in Arm A or B before being re-assigned to Arm D. Beginning in course 2, patients receive rituximab IV (500 mg/m\\^2) on day 1 and fludarabine phosphate (age \\< 70: 25 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 20 mg/m\\^2/day) IV piggyback over 30 minutes or PO (32 mg/m\\^2/day) and cyclophosphamide IV (age \\< 70: 250 mg/m\\^2/day; age \\>= 70: 150 mg/m\\^2/day) piggyback over 30 minutes on days 1-3. Participants without progression receive consolidation therapy: lenalidomide 5mg/day cycle 1, 10 mg/day cycles 2-6PO QD on days 1-21 of 28 day cycle.', 'interventionNames': ['Drug: Cyclophosphamide', 'Drug: Fludarabine Phosphate', 'Other: Laboratory Biomarker Analysis', 'Drug: Lenalidomide', 'Biological: Rituximab']}], 'interventions': [{'name': 'Cyclophosphamide', 'type': 'DRUG', 'otherNames': ['(-)-Cyclophosphamide', '2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorine, 2-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]tetrahydro-, 2-oxide, monohydrate', 'Carloxan', 'Ciclofosfamida', 'Ciclofosfamide', 'Cicloxal', 'Clafen', 'Claphene', 'CP monohydrate', 'CTX', 'CYCLO-cell', 'Cycloblastin', 'Cycloblastine', 'Cyclophospham', 'Cyclophosphamid monohydrate', 'Cyclophosphamide Monohydrate', 'Cyclophosphamidum', 'Cyclophosphan', 'Cyclophosphane', 'Cyclophosphanum', 'Cyclostin', 'Cyclostine', 'Cytophosphan', 'Cytophosphane', 'Cytoxan', 'Fosfaseron', 'Genoxal', 'Genuxal', 'Ledoxina', 'Mitoxan', 'Neosar', 'Revimmune', 'Syklofosfamid', 'WR- 138719'], 'description': 'Given IV', 'armGroupLabels': ['Arm C (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, cyclophosphamide)', 'Arm D (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, lenalidomide)']}, {'name': 'Fludarabine Phosphate', 'type': 'DRUG', 'otherNames': ['2-F-ara-AMP', '9H-Purin-6-amine, 2-fluoro-9-(5-O-phosphono-.beta.-D-arabinofuranosyl)-', 'Beneflur', 'Fludara', 'SH T 586'], 'description': 'Given IV or PO', 'armGroupLabels': ['Arm A (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate)', 'Arm B (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, lenalidomide)', 'Arm C (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, cyclophosphamide)', 'Arm D (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, lenalidomide)']}, {'name': 'Laboratory Biomarker Analysis', 'type': 'OTHER', 'description': 'Correlative studies', 'armGroupLabels': ['Arm A (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate)', 'Arm B (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, lenalidomide)', 'Arm C (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, cyclophosphamide)', 'Arm D (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, lenalidomide)']}, {'name': 'Lenalidomide', 'type': 'DRUG', 'otherNames': ['CC-5013', 'CC5013', 'CDC 501', 'Revlimid'], 'description': 'Given PO', 'armGroupLabels': ['Arm B (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, lenalidomide)', 'Arm D (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, lenalidomide)']}, {'name': 'Rituximab', 'type': 'BIOLOGICAL', 'otherNames': ['ABP 798', 'BI 695500', 'C2B8 Monoclonal Antibody', 'Chimeric Anti-CD20 Antibody', 'CT-P10', 'IDEC-102', 'IDEC-C2B8', 'IDEC-C2B8 Monoclonal Antibody', 'MabThera', 'Monoclonal Antibody IDEC-C2B8', 'PF-05280586', 'Riabni', 'Rituxan', 'Rituximab ABBS', 'Rituximab ARRX', 'Rituximab Biosimilar ABP 798', 'Rituximab Biosimilar BI 695500', 'Rituximab Biosimilar CT-P10', 'Rituximab Biosimilar GB241', 'Rituximab Biosimilar IBI301', 'Rituximab Biosimilar JHL1101', 'Rituximab Biosimilar PF-05280586', 'Rituximab Biosimilar RTXM83', 'Rituximab Biosimilar SAIT101', 'Rituximab Biosimilar SIBP-02', 'rituximab biosimilar TQB2303', 'Rituximab PVVR', 'rituximab-abbs', 'Rituximab-arrx', 'Rituximab-pvvr', 'RTXM83', 'Ruxience', 'Truxima'], 'description': 'Given IV', 'armGroupLabels': ['Arm A (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate)', 'Arm B (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, lenalidomide)', 'Arm C (rituximab, fludarabine phosphate, cyclophosphamide)', 'Arm D (rituximab, fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, lenalidomide)']}]}, 'contactsLocationsModule': {'locations': [{'zip': '85259', 'city': 'Scottsdale', 'state': 'Arizona', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Mayo Clinic in Arizona', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 33.50921, 'lon': -111.89903}}, {'zip': '93420', 'city': 'Arroyo Grande', 'state': 'California', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'PCR Oncology', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 35.11859, 'lon': -120.59073}}, {'zip': '91505', 'city': 'Burbank', 'state': 'California', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Providence Saint Joseph Medical Center/Disney Family Cancer Center', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 34.18084, 'lon': -118.30897}}, {'zip': '94040', 'city': 'Mountain View', 'state': 'California', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Palo Alto Medical Foundation-Camino Division', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 37.38605, 'lon': -122.08385}}, {'zip': '94301', 'city': 'Palo Alto', 'state': 'California', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Palo Alto Medical Foundation Health Care', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 37.44188, 'lon': -122.14302}}, {'zip': '94115', 'city': 'San Francisco', 'state': 'California', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'UCSF Medical Center-Mount Zion', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 37.77493, 'lon': -122.41942}}, {'zip': '06102', 'city': 'Hartford', 'state': 'Connecticut', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Hartford Hospital', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 41.76371, 'lon': -72.68509}}, {'zip': '06105', 'city': 'Hartford', 'state': 'Connecticut', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Smilow Cancer Hospital Care Center at Saint Francis', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 41.76371, 'lon': -72.68509}}, {'zip': '06856', 'city': 'Norwalk', 'state': 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CancerCare-Carthage', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 40.41643, 'lon': -91.13625}}, {'zip': '62321', 'city': 'Carthage', 'state': 'Illinois', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Memorial Hospital', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 40.41643, 'lon': -91.13625}}, {'zip': '60611', 'city': 'Chicago', 'state': 'Illinois', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Hematology and Oncology Associates', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 41.85003, 'lon': -87.65005}}, {'zip': '60611', 'city': 'Chicago', 'state': 'Illinois', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Northwestern University', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 41.85003, 'lon': -87.65005}}, {'zip': '60637', 'city': 'Chicago', 'state': 'Illinois', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'University of Chicago Comprehensive Cancer Center', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 41.85003, 'lon': -87.65005}}, {'zip': '60640', 'city': 'Chicago', 'state': 'Illinois', 'country': 'United States', 'facility': 'Weiss Memorial Hospital', 'geoPoint': {'lat': 41.85003, 'lon': -87.65005}}, {'zip': '62526', 'city': 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